01
Fill in the blank
1 point
In a Cisco IOS OSPF network statement, what wildcard mask matches any address in a /24 network? Enter the mask:
Free Practice Quiz Question List
3 OSPF Fundamentals and Configuration Online Quiz Questions
Use this free practice quiz with 20 questions to review 3 OSPF Fundamentals and Configuration, test your knowledge, and prepare for your next test or exam.
20 questions
02
Choose one
1 point
Router R1 runs router ospf 1 and router R2 runs router ospf 20. Their transit interfaces use compatible OSPF settings and the same area. Which statement about the process IDs is correct?
- A
The process IDs must match on both routers for them to become neighbors.
- B
Each router's process ID is local, so the IDs do not need to match.
- C
The process ID is the router ID used to identify the router to its neighbors.
- D
The process ID determines the OSPF area for all interfaces on the router.
03
True or false
1 point
True or false: Depending on the configuration, an OSPF passive interface can advertise its connected network while suppressing Hellos used to form neighbors.
- A
True
- B
False
04
Written response
1 point
What algorithm does an OSPF router run against its link-state database to calculate routes? Enter the algorithm's abbreviation.
05
Choose one
1 point
A router has received an OSPF Hello, but the Hello does not list that router as a neighbor. Which neighbor state describes this situation?
- A
No recent Hello has been received.
- B
Hellos confirm communication in both directions.
- C
A Hello has been received, but it does not list this router as a neighbor.
- D
The adjacency's databases are synchronized.
06
Fill in the blank
1 point
On Cisco IOS/IOS XE, what single-letter code commonly marks a route learned through OSPF in show ip route? Enter the code:
07
Choose all
1 point
In Cisco IOS/IOS XE, select all functions performed by an OSPF network statement.
- A
It selects interfaces whose addresses match the statement.
- B
It assigns IP addresses to the selected interfaces.
- C
It assigns the selected interfaces to an OSPF area.
- D
It makes the router copy a neighbor's finished routing table.
08
Choose one
1 point
On a shared broadcast network, what is the purpose of electing a Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR)?
- A
They calculate routes for every router and distribute the results.
- B
They reduce the number of adjacencies needed on the broadcast network.
- C
They assign matching OSPF process IDs to all routers.
- D
They prevent routers from flooding link-state advertisements within the area.
09
Written response
1 point
Which Cisco IOS command displays OSPF neighbor relationships? Enter the command.
10
Choose all
1 point
An OSPF neighbor remains in ExStart or Exchange. Select all checks specifically recommended for this situation.
- A
Check for an interface MTU mismatch.
- B
Assume an OSPF process-ID mismatch is the cause because neighboring process IDs must match.
- C
Check for other database-description exchange issues.
- D
Replace the SPF calculation with a neighbor's completed routing table.
11
True or false
1 point
True or false: A router installs every route it learns through OSPF, even when another route is preferred.
- A
True
- B
False
12
Open ended
1 point
Two routers have a Full OSPF adjacency, but one router has no route to the other's LAN in its routing table. Describe a logical sequence of checks to find why the route is missing.
13
Choose one
1 point
A router has three candidate paths to the same destination. Path A has outgoing interface costs 4 and 8, Path B has costs 3 and 5, and Path C has costs 6 and 4. Which path does OSPF prefer?
- A
Path A: 4 + 8
- B
Path B: 3 + 5
- C
Path C: 6 + 4
14
Choose one
1 point
In Cisco IOS/IOS XE OSPF configuration, which wildcard mask matches all addresses in the subnet 192.168.40.0/24?
- A
0.0.0.0
- B
0.0.255.255
- C
0.0.0.255
- D
255.255.255.0
15
Written response
1 point
What OSPF neighbor state indicates that an adjacency's link-state databases are synchronized?
16
Choose one
1 point
Two Cisco routers have OSPF process IDs 1 and 20, respectively. Their transit interfaces use compatible OSPF settings and are assigned to Area 0. Which statement is correct?
- A
The routers cannot become neighbors unless their process IDs match.
- B
The routers can become neighbors if their link settings are compatible and both use the same area.
- C
The routers can become neighbors only if their router IDs also match.
- D
Different process IDs force the routers to use different areas.
17
Written response
1 point
On Cisco IOS/IOS XE, what route-code character commonly marks an OSPF-learned intra-area route in show ip route?
18
Choose one
1 point
On a shared broadcast network, two OSPF routers are neither the DR nor the BDR and remain in the 2-Way state with each other. Which interpretation is correct?
- A
They must become Full because every pair of OSPF neighbors always forms an adjacency.
- B
They must become Full because the BDR cannot be involved in adjacencies.
- C
They may remain 2-Way; this can be normal for routers that are neither the DR nor BDR.
- D
They must become Down because only the DR can receive Hellos.
19
Choose one
1 point
An OSPF-enabled LAN interface is configured as passive. Which behavior may result, depending on the configuration?
- A
It can advertise its connected network while suppressing Hellos used to form neighbors.
- B
It always suppresses both the network advertisement and all OSPF routing information.
- C
It forms neighbors normally but prevents the LSDB from synchronizing.
- D
It automatically changes the interface to a different OSPF area.
20
True or false
1 point
For two directly connected OSPF routers to form a neighbor relationship over their link, the interfaces on both ends must use the same area; different area assignments can prevent neighbor formation. True or false?
- A
True
- B
False
Related study packs and tools
- Quiz
1 Network Troubleshooting Method
A medium-difficulty quiz on applying a disciplined network troubleshooting workflow: defining symptoms, gathering evidence, testing hypotheses, verifying fixes, and documenting outcomes.
- Quiz
2 Cabling and Physical Connectivity
A medium-difficulty quiz on diagnosing cabling and physical connectivity faults, interpreting symptoms, and selecting appropriate tests.
- Study guide
2 Professionalism in IT Practice
Learn how integrity, communication, confidentiality, and structured judgment guide responsible conduct in IT work.
- Quiz
2 Virtual Machines
A medium-difficulty quiz on virtual machine architecture, provisioning, networking, storage, and operations.
- Quiz
3 Accessories and Peripheral Devices
A medium-difficulty quiz on selecting, connecting, configuring, and troubleshooting laptop accessories and peripheral devices.
CompTIA A+ Mobile DevicesUpdated - Study guide
3 Containers and Containerization
Learn how containers, images, registries, and runtimes work together, and how container isolation compares with virtual machines.
- Quiz
5 Cloud Service Models
A medium-difficulty quiz on applying and distinguishing IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS, including their responsibilities, trade-offs, and appropriate uses.
- Quiz
5 Network Services and Name Resolution
A medium-difficulty quiz on diagnosing DHCP, DNS, and network-service problems, progressing from core concepts to multi-step troubleshooting.
- Quiz
6 Diagnosing Network Problems
A medium-difficulty quiz on diagnosing network problems by testing systematically, interpreting evidence, and narrowing down likely causes.
- Study guide
6 Security Operations and Incident Response
Learn how security teams monitor activity, manage vulnerabilities, respond to incidents, preserve digital evidence, and restore services safely.
- Study guide
7 Integrated Troubleshooting Practice
A practical workflow for isolating mixed hardware, display, storage, mobile-device, and network problems, protecting data, and verifying repairs.
- Study guide
8 Comprehensive Security+ Practice and Review
A scenario-focused guide to Security+ SY0-701 concepts, emphasizing evidence-based incident response, access control, cryptography, vulnerability handling, recovery objectives, and risk governance.