Free Practice Quiz Question List

04 Cardiovascular Emergencies and Resuscitation Online Quiz Questions

Use this free practice quiz with 30 questions to review 04 Cardiovascular Emergencies and Resuscitation, test your knowledge, and prepare for your next test or exam.

30 questions

Choose one

1 point

You find an adult who is unresponsive and only gasping. As a trained EMT, you cannot definitely locate a carotid pulse within 10 seconds. What should you do next?

A
Obtain a blood pressure before beginning treatment
B
Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available
C
Place the patient in the recovery position and reassess in 5 minutes
D
Give oral glucose because the patient may be hypoglycemic

Choose one

1 point

Which compression rate is recommended for high-quality adult CPR?

A
60–80 compressions per minute
B
80–100 compressions per minute
C
100–120 compressions per minute
D
130–160 compressions per minute

Choose one

1 point

What compression depth should an EMT use for an average adult during high-quality CPR?

A
At least 2 inches (5 cm)
B
About 1 inch (2.5 cm)
C
About 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D
As deep as possible without regard to recoil

Choose one

1 point

During AED analysis, another rescuer continues chest compressions. What is the EMT's best action?

A
Continue compressions because pauses are never permitted
B
Remove the pads and perform a manual pulse check
C
Deliver a shock immediately without waiting for the analysis
D
Tell everyone to stop touching the patient until analysis is complete

Choose one

1 point

An AED advises and delivers a shock to an adult in cardiac arrest. What should the EMT do next?

A
Wait 2 minutes before restarting compressions
B
Check a blood pressure before resuming CPR
C
Immediately resume CPR when prompted by the AED
D
Remove the pads so the AED cannot analyze again

Choose one

1 point

A patient is anxious, pale, cool, clammy, and has a weak rapid pulse, but the blood pressure is currently normal. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

A
The patient cannot be in shock because the blood pressure is normal
B
The patient may have early shock and needs support, reassessment, and prompt transport decisions
C
The patient should be given food and drink to correct the likely cause
D
The patient should walk around to improve circulation

Choose one

1 point

An alert patient with suspected shock is breathing adequately and has no evidence of trauma, vomiting, or airway risk. Which position is generally appropriate if tolerated?

A
Keep the patient supine if tolerated and continue close monitoring
B
Place the patient prone to improve venous return
C
Have the patient stand to assess whether symptoms improve
D
Place the patient head-down with the legs elevated as high as possible

Choose one

1 point

A patient reports crushing chest pressure with nausea and diaphoresis. After completing the primary assessment, which action is most appropriate?

A
Have the patient walk to the ambulance to assess exercise tolerance
B
Give food and wait to see whether the nausea improves
C
Delay transport until the patient is completely pain-free
D
Limit exertion, request appropriate resources, and prepare for rapid transport

Choose one

1 point

A patient with a history of heart failure is severely short of breath, sitting upright, and producing pink, frothy sputum. What is the best initial approach?

A
Place the patient flat and encourage deep breathing
B
Support the airway and breathing, maintain an upright position if tolerated, and request ALS
C
Encourage the patient to walk to improve circulation
D
Give food and water while waiting for transport

Choose one

1 point

An alert patient reports a rapid and irregular heartbeat. Which finding would most strongly increase the urgency of the EMT's response?

A
The pulse rate alone determines whether the rhythm is dangerous
B
Any irregular pulse should be treated with oral fluids
C
The presence of poor perfusion or other concerning symptoms determines urgency
D
A patient with palpitations never needs transport if a pulse is present

Choose one

1 point

Which history from a patient who briefly fainted should most strongly increase concern for a serious cardiac cause?

A
Syncope that occurred during exertion and was accompanied by palpitations
B
A brief episode after standing in a hot room with normal assessment findings
C
A patient who remembers feeling mildly anxious before the event
D
A patient who is embarrassed but has returned fully to baseline with normal findings

Choose one

1 point

A patient developed facial droop and slurred speech 35 minutes ago, but the symptoms improve during your assessment. What should you do?

A
Cancel transport because the symptoms have resolved
B
Give food and reassess after 30 minutes
C
Allow the patient to drive because the patient is now alert
D
Document the last-known-well time and continue urgent stroke evaluation and transport

Choose one

1 point

A patient regains a palpable pulse and begins breathing normally after resuscitation. Which action is most appropriate next?

A
Stop monitoring because the cardiac arrest has been resolved
B
Reassess airway, breathing, circulation, mental status, and other indicated post-arrest findings
C
Give the patient food and drink immediately
D
Allow the patient to remain unattended if breathing appears normal

Choose one

1 point

You find an unresponsive adult who is only gasping. You are a trained EMT and cannot definitely locate a carotid pulse within 10 seconds. What should you do next?

A
Obtain a blood pressure before intervening
B
Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as available
C
Place the patient in the recovery position
D
Give oral glucose

Choose one

1 point

For an adult in cardiac arrest who does not have an advanced airway, which compression-to-ventilation ratio should an EMT use?

A
15 compressions followed by 2 breaths
B
30 compressions followed by 1 breath
C
30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
D
100 compressions followed by 20 breaths

Choose one

1 point

What compression rate should an EMT target during high-quality adult CPR?

A
100–120 compressions per minute
B
60–80 compressions per minute
C
80–90 compressions per minute
D
140–160 compressions per minute

Choose one

1 point

During AED analysis, a bystander continues compressions on the patient. What should the EMT do?

A
Continue compressions because AED analysis does not require a pause
B
Remove the AED pads and reassess the pulse
C
Deliver a shock immediately without waiting for the device
D
Tell everyone to stop touching the patient until analysis is complete

Choose one

1 point

An AED advises and delivers a shock to an adult in cardiac arrest. What should the EMT do immediately afterward when the AED prompts for continued care?

A
Wait two minutes before touching the patient
B
Immediately resume CPR when prompted
C
Remove the pads and transport without further resuscitation
D
Give oral fluids while waiting for a pulse

Choose one

1 point

A patient is pale, cool, clammy, restless, and tachycardic but has a normal blood pressure. Which statement best describes this presentation?

A
Shock is impossible when systolic blood pressure is normal
B
Shock is present only when the patient is unconscious
C
Shock may be present despite a normal blood pressure
D
Shock can be diagnosed only after a glucose measurement

Choose one

1 point

A patient with suspected shock is alert, breathing adequately, and has no evidence of trauma. Which position is generally appropriate if tolerated?

A
Supine if tolerated
B
Prone with the head turned to the side
C
Standing to improve circulation
D
Head-down with the legs elevated as high as possible

Choose one

1 point

A patient reports crushing chest pressure, nausea, and diaphoresis. Which action has the highest priority after the primary assessment?

A
Have the patient walk to the ambulance to assess exercise tolerance
B
Encourage the patient to eat to prevent weakness
C
Delay transport until the pain completely resolves
D
Limit exertion, request appropriate resources, and prepare for rapid transport

Choose one

1 point

A patient reports an irregular heartbeat. Which assessment principle should guide the EMT's next decision?

A
Treat every pulse below 60 per minute with immediate transport only if the patient requests it
B
Focus only on the pulse rate because symptoms do not affect urgency
C
Determine whether the rhythm is causing poor perfusion and support the patient accordingly
D
Have the patient walk to determine whether the rhythm persists

Choose one

1 point

Which presentation after a fainting episode should most strongly increase an EMT's concern for a serious cardiac cause?

A
Syncope during exertion with palpitations and abnormal vital signs
B
A brief faint after seeing a needle with rapid return to baseline and normal vital signs
C
A patient who remembers feeling warm before a faint and has no concerning symptoms
D
A patient who is embarrassed but has an otherwise normal assessment

Choose one

1 point

A patient had sudden facial droop and slurred speech beginning 35 minutes ago. The symptoms improve during your assessment. What should you do?

A
Cancel EMS because the symptoms have resolved
B
Give oral food and reassess in one hour
C
Allow the patient to drive because the examination is now normal
D
Document the last-known-well time and continue urgent evaluation and transport

Choose one

1 point

Which finding most strongly suggests return of spontaneous circulation during resuscitation?

A
The AED announces another analysis cycle
B
The patient remains motionless with no pulse
C
The patient has a brief muscle twitch during compressions only
D
The patient develops purposeful movement, normal breathing, and a palpable pulse

Choose one

1 point

You find an adult lying supine and unresponsive. The patient is only gasping, and you cannot definitely locate a carotid pulse within 10 seconds. What should you do next?

A
Obtain a blood pressure before starting treatment
B
Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as available
C
Place the patient in the recovery position
D
Administer oral glucose

Choose one

1 point

An adult patient has a definite carotid pulse but is not breathing normally. Which intervention is most appropriate?

A
Provide ventilations according to training and local protocol while frequently reassessing the pulse
B
Begin chest compressions because all patients who are not breathing normally are in cardiac arrest
C
Place the patient supine and wait for spontaneous breathing to return
D
Give oral fluids to correct the breathing problem

Choose one

1 point

A patient has cool, clammy skin, a rapid weak pulse, weakness, and increasing anxiety, but the blood pressure is currently normal. What is the best EMT approach?

A
Discharge the patient because the blood pressure is normal
B
Give food and drink to restore circulating volume
C
Have the patient walk to improve circulation
D
Support airway and breathing, keep the patient warm, request appropriate resources, and reassess frequently

Choose one

1 point

A patient develops sudden facial droop and slurred speech. The symptoms improve while you are assessing the patient. What should you do?

A
Cancel EMS because the symptoms resolved
B
Give aspirin immediately without further assessment
C
Document the last-known-well time and continue urgent stroke evaluation and transport
D
Allow the patient to drive to the hospital

Choose one

1 point

You are preparing to use an AED on an unresponsive adult who has a visible implanted cardiac pacemaker beneath the skin. Which action is most appropriate?

A
Do not use the AED because an implanted device makes defibrillation unsafe
B
Place the AED pad several centimeters away from the implanted device when possible
C
Place the AED pad directly over the implanted device to improve conduction
D
Remove the implanted device before applying the AED pads