True or false: A recovery point objective (RPO) specifies the target maximum amount of data loss, measured in time.
6 Security Operations and Incident Response Online Quiz Questions
Use this free practice quiz with 20 questions to review 6 Security Operations and Incident Response, test your knowledge, and prepare for your next test or exam.
A vulnerability is exploited before an effective patch is available. This is a vulnerability.
An organization needs to correlate authentication events, endpoint activity, and cloud audit records to identify suspicious sequences. Which tool is designed for this role?
- A
An EDR collects endpoint telemetry and supports endpoint investigation and response.
- B
A SIEM centralizes and correlates events from multiple sources.
- C
An IPS only records suspicious activity and cannot block or disrupt it.
- D
A vulnerability scanner restores systems after a major disruption.
A team creates a full backup on Sunday and a differential backup on Wednesday. Which data does the Wednesday differential backup contain?
- A
It contains changes since the last backup of any type.
- B
It contains a complete copy of all selected data each time.
- C
It contains changes since the last full backup.
- D
It contains only data stored on an off-site device.
A business impact analysis sets a target to restore a service within six hours after disruption. What is the RTO? Enter the value in hours.
True or false: A successful backup status message by itself proves that the organization can restore the data.
- A
True
- B
False
After containing an incident, responders remove malware and unauthorized persistence mechanisms. They are carrying out the phase.
What is the forensic term for the documented history of evidence possession and handling? Enter the term.
Select all practices that support dependable security log management.
- A
Use synchronized clocks and consistent timestamps, including a time zone or UTC.
- B
Allow anyone with network access to change centralized logs without monitoring.
- C
Restrict and monitor access to logs.
- D
Retain logs according to business, legal, and regulatory needs.
- E
Rely only on local logs because central copies cannot assist investigators.
A severe vulnerability affects an isolated test machine. A moderately scored vulnerability is actively exploited on an internet-facing identity server. Which prioritization is best supported?
- A
Fix the highest CVSS score first in every case, regardless of exposure or business impact.
- B
Prioritize the actively exploited flaw on the exposed identity server, while considering business impact and available controls.
- C
Defer the actively exploited flaw because its score is only moderate.
- D
Treat both findings as equal because the test machine has a severe score.
Responders confirm that an attacker has compromised an account and is communicating with an affected host. Select all actions that are examples of containment.
- A
Isolate a compromised host from the network.
- B
Return a restored system to normal operation without additional monitoring.
- C
Disable a confirmed compromised account.
- D
Block malicious traffic.
- E
Remove persistence mechanisms from affected systems.
During an investigation, a compromised host may contain relevant data in memory and running processes. What is the most appropriate forensic consideration before responders change the host's state?
- A
Immediately shut down the host in every case, because volatile evidence is preserved after power is removed.
- B
Begin analysis on the original system and document only the final conclusions.
- C
Coordinate with incident leadership about collection priorities before taking actions that could destroy volatile evidence.
- D
Ignore running processes because only stored files can support an investigation.
An alert indicates possible account compromise and unauthorized access to a business system. Describe a practical incident-response approach from initial analysis through recovery and follow-up. Include how responders should handle evidence and why recovery should be monitored.
True or false: A successful backup message by itself proves that the backed-up data can be restored.
- A
True
- B
False
A security team wants its SOAR platform to disable accounts confirmed as malicious. Which practice best supports safe automation?
- A
Let the platform disable any account whenever an alert rule matches, without review or logging.
- B
Require authorization and safeguards for response actions, and retain audit records of what the automation did.
- C
Allow the platform to delete the alert and its supporting events after it takes action.
- D
Use automation only to collect events, never to perform an approved response step.
A network security system detects suspicious traffic and can block it. Which type of system has this blocking capability?
- A
IDS
- B
IPS
- C
SIEM
- D
EDR
A business requires a service to be restored within six hours after a disruption. Which recovery measure expresses that target?
- A
Recovery point objective (RPO)
- B
Recovery time objective (RTO)
- C
Business impact analysis (BIA)
- D
Chain of custody
What is the term for the documented history of who possessed and handled digital evidence?
An isolated test machine has a severe vulnerability. An internet-facing identity server has a moderately scored vulnerability that is actively exploited. Which finding should generally receive higher remediation priority?
- A
Patch the isolated test machine first because its vulnerability has the higher severity score.
- B
Prioritize the moderately scored flaw on the internet-facing identity server because it is actively exploited and affects an important exposed system.
- C
Defer both findings until every vulnerability on the network has been assigned a score.
- D
Close the identity-server finding because a moderate score means it cannot pose an urgent risk.
What term describes evidence such as memory contents and running processes that may disappear when a system is shut down?