Free Practice Quiz Question List

1 Cardiovascular Pharmacology Foundations Online Quiz Questions

Use this free practice quiz with 20 questions to review 1 Cardiovascular Pharmacology Foundations, test your knowledge, and prepare for your next test or exam.

20 questions

Choose one

1 point

A patient with heart failure develops worsening ankle swelling and breathlessness from fluid retention. Which medication group commonly helps relieve this congestion by increasing fluid excretion?

A
Diuretics
B
Antiplatelet medicines
C
Class I antiarrhythmics
D
Anticoagulants

True or false

1 point

Amlodipine mainly relaxes arteries, while verapamil can slow AV-node conduction and heart rate.

A
True
B
False

Fill in the blank

1 point

Thiazide-type diuretics can lower potassium and sodium and may raise .

Choose one

1 point

A patient taking furosemide develops weakness and muscle cramps. Which laboratory abnormalities are especially important to assess?

A
Low potassium and low magnesium
B
High potassium and high magnesium
C
High calcium only
D
Low glucose only

Fill in the blank

1 point

Spironolactone reduces aldosterone's effects and retains . With kidney impairment, the risk of can increase.

Choose one

1 point

A patient with atrial fibrillation takes a beta-blocker and an anticoagulant. Which statement best distinguishes their purposes?

A
The beta-blocker can help control heart rate; the anticoagulant reduces clot-related stroke risk when indicated.
B
Both medicines directly convert atrial fibrillation to normal rhythm.
C
The anticoagulant slows AV-node conduction; the beta-blocker dissolves clots.
D
Neither medicine requires attention to adherence or safety.

Written response

1 point

A patient taking lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough. Which medication class may the prescriber consider as an alternative?

True or false

1 point

A patient taking metoprolol should abruptly stop the medicine without clinical guidance if their pulse becomes slower than usual.

A
True
B
False

Written response

1 point

Digoxin exposure can increase when kidney function worsens. What clearance process is primarily affected?

Choose all

1 point

Which statements are valid reasons for monitoring a patient taking an antiarrhythmic medicine? Select all that apply.

A
An antiarrhythmic can sometimes cause a new or worsened rhythm problem.
B
Amiodarone can have important pulmonary toxicity.
C
Amiodarone can have important hepatic or thyroid toxicity.
D
Amiodarone can have important cardiac toxicities and drug interactions.
E
All antiarrhythmics permanently cure arrhythmias after one dose.
F
Monitoring is needed only to measure blood sugar.

Open ended

1 point

A patient taking amiodarone develops a new cough and shortness of breath. Explain why these symptoms warrant prompt clinical assessment and identify other important toxicity or monitoring considerations for this medicine.

Choose one

1 point

A patient with chest discomfort recently took sildenafil and asks whether to use prescribed nitroglycerin. Which safety principle applies?

A
Nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors can cause severe hypotension when used together.
B
Sildenafil prevents nitroglycerin from lowering blood pressure.
C
The combination prevents all heart rhythms.
D
Nitroglycerin is safe with sildenafil if taken with a potassium supplement.

Choose all

1 point

Which situations warrant urgent help rather than waiting for a routine medication review? Select all that apply.

A
Severe chest pain
B
Fainting
C
Major breathing difficulty
D
Signs of a serious medication reaction
E
A predictable mild ankle swelling without other concerning symptoms
F
A routine medication refill several weeks before it is due

Written response

1 point

Which new respiratory symptom warrants prompt clinical assessment in a person taking amiodarone? Enter either symptom mentioned in the material.

Choose one

1 point

A patient taking furosemide reports weakness and muscle cramps. Which laboratory abnormalities are important to assess?

A
Low potassium and low magnesium
B
High potassium and high magnesium
C
High calcium only
D
Low glucose only

Choose one

1 point

Which pairing correctly distinguishes two common calcium-channel-blocker effects?

A
Amlodipine mainly relaxes arteries; verapamil can slow AV-node conduction and heart rate.
B
Amlodipine increases clotting; verapamil dissolves clots.
C
Both drugs increase heart rate by stimulating beta receptors.
D
Both drugs remove potassium through the kidneys.

Choose one

1 point

A patient taking lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough. Which explanation and potential alternative are most appropriate?

A
ACE inhibition reduces angiotensin II; an angiotensin-receptor blocker may be considered by the prescriber.
B
ACE inhibition blocks calcium channels; verapamil should be started without review.
C
The cough indicates low potassium; potassium supplements should be added.
D
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin breakdown; a nitrate should be added.

Choose one

1 point

A patient with atrial fibrillation takes a beta-blocker and an anticoagulant. Which statement best describes their different purposes?

A
The beta-blocker can help control heart rate; the anticoagulant reduces clot-related stroke risk when indicated.
B
Both medicines directly convert atrial fibrillation to normal rhythm.
C
The anticoagulant slows AV-node conduction; the beta-blocker dissolves clots.
D
Neither medicine requires attention to adherence or safety.

True or false

1 point

True or false: A person taking a chronic beta-blocker who feels faint and has a markedly slower-than-usual pulse should seek clinical guidance rather than independently increasing or abruptly stopping the medicine.

A
True
B
False

Written response

1 point

Digoxin is cleared mainly by which organ, so impaired function there can increase digoxin exposure?